2025 Exam 8011 Material | Professional 8011 Online Tests: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam 100% Pass
2025 Exam 8011 Material | Professional 8011 Online Tests: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam 100% Pass
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PRMIA 8011: CCRM certificate is recognized globally and is highly regarded in the financial services industry. It is an essential certification for professionals who are involved in credit and counterparty risk management, including credit analysts, portfolio managers, risk managers, and traders.
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To earn the PRMIA 8011 CCRM Certificate, candidates must pass a rigorous certification exam that tests their knowledge and skills in the area of credit and counterparty risk management. 8011 exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and must be completed within a three-hour time limit. Candidates who pass the exam are awarded the PRMIA 8011 CCRM Certificate, which is valid for three years. To maintain their certification, candidates must complete ongoing professional development activities and pass a recertification exam every three years.
PRMIA 8011 exam covers a wide range of topics related to credit and counterparty risk management, including credit analysis, credit risk measurement and management, counterparty risk management, and credit derivatives. It is designed to test the knowledge and skills of candidates in these areas and to ensure that they have a thorough understanding of the concepts and principles of credit and counterparty risk management. Candidates who pass the exam are awarded the PRMIA 8011 certificate, which is widely recognized by employers and financial institutions around the world as a mark of excellence in credit and counterparty risk management.
PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q302-Q307):
NEW QUESTION # 302
CreditRisk+, the actuarial model for calculating portfolio credit risk, is based upon:
- A. the log-normal distribution
- B. the normal distribution
- C. the Poisson distribution
- D. the exponential distribution
Answer: C
Explanation:
CreditRisk+ treats default as a binary event, ignoring downgrade risk, capital structures of individual firms in the portfolio or the causes of default. It uses a single parameter,#or the mean default rate, and derives credit risk based upon the Poisson distribution. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 303
A statement in the annual report of a bank states that the 10-day VaR at the 95% level of confidence at the end of the year is $253m. Which of the following is true:
I. The maximum loss that the bank is exposed to over a 10-day period is $253m.
II. There is a 5% probability that the bank's losses will not exceed $253m III. The maximum loss in value that is expected to be equaled or exceeded only 5% of the time is $253m IV. The bank's regulatory capital assets are equal to $253m
- A. I and IV
- B. III only
- C. II and IV
- D. I and III
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement I is not correct as VaR does not set an upper limit on losses. In this case, the bank expects the losses to exceed $253m 5% of the times, and the VaR number does not indicate any theoretical maximum amount of losses.Statement II is incorrect as there is a 95% (and not 5%) probability that the bank's losses will not exceed $253mStatement III is correct and describes VaR.Statement IV is incorrect, as regulatory capital is a more complex computation for which VaR is only one of the various input.Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 304
Which loss event type is the failure to timely deliver collateral classified as under the Basel II framework?
- A. Execution, Delivery & Process Management
- B. Information security
- C. Clients, products and business practices
- D. External fraud
Answer: A
Explanation:
Refer to the detailed loss event type classification under Basel II (see Annex 9 of the accord). You should know the exact names of all loss event types, and examples of each.
NEW QUESTION # 305
Which of the following is the best description of the spread premium puzzle:
- A. The spread premium puzzle refers to AAA corporate bonds being priced at almost the same prices as equivalent treasury bonds without offering the same liquidity or guarantee as treasury bonds
- B. The spread premium puzzle refers to the moral hazard implicit in the monoline insurance market
- C. The spread premium puzzle refers to observed default rates being much less than implied default rates, leading to lower credit bonds being relatively cheap when compared to their actual default probabilities
- D. The spread premium puzzle refers to dollar denominated non-US sovereign bonds being priced a at significant discount to other similar USD denominated assets
Answer: C
Explanation:
Choice 'a' is the correct answer. The other choices represent non-sensical statements.
NEW QUESTION # 306
A bank expects the error rate in transaction data entry for a particular business process to be 0.005%. What is the range of expected errors in a day within +/- 2 standard deviations if there are 2,000,000 such transactions each day?
- A. 80 to 120 errors in a day
- B. 60 to 80 errors in a day
- C. 90 to 110 errors in a day
- D. 0 to 200 errors in a day
Answer: A
Explanation:
Error rates are generally modeled using the Poisson distribution. Recall that the Poisson distribution has only one parameter -#- which is its mean and also its variance.
In the given case, the mean number of errors is 2,000,000 x 0.005% = 100. Since this is the variance as well, the standard deviation is #100 = 10. Therefore the range of outcomes within 2 standard deviations of the mean is 100 +/- (2*10) = 80 to 120 errors in a day.
NEW QUESTION # 307
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